UPSC CSE Prelims 2024 GS - Solved

UPSC CSE PRELIMS 2024

   PAPER-I        GS

Q1. How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?

 (a). One

 (b). Two

 (c). Three

 (d). Four

 

Explanation:

There have been four Delimitation Commissions constituted by the Government of India till December 2023. These commissions were set up in 1952, 1963, 1972 and 2002.

So the answer is (d).

 

 Q2. The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?

 1. Konkani

 2. Manipuri

 3. Nepali

 4. Maithili

 Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a). 1, 2 and 3

(b). 1, 2 and 4

(c). 1, 3 and 4

(d). 2, 3 and 4

 

Explanation:

The 71st Amendment in 1992 recognized Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali.

The 92nd Amendment in 2003 included Maithili, Bodo, Dogri, and Santhali.

So the answer is (a).

 

Q3. Consider the following pairs :

 Party                                                   Its Leader

 1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh          Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee

 2. Socialist Party                   C. Rajagopalachari

 3. Congress for Democracy         Jagjivan Ram

 4. Swatantra Party             Acharya Narendra Dev

 How many of the above are correctly matched?

 (a). Only one

 (b). Only two

 (c). Only three

 (d). All four

 

Explanation:

Bharatiya Jana Sangh - Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee (Correct)

Socialist Party - C. Rajagopalachari (Incorrect)

C. Rajagopalachari was the leader of Swatantra Party, not the Socialist Party.

Congress for Democracy - Jagjivan Ram (Correct)

Swatantra Party - Acharya Narendra Dev (Incorrect)

Acharya Narendra Dev was associated with the Socialist Party, not the Swatantra Party.

Therefore, based on the corrections:

So the answer is (b). Only two.

 

 Q4. Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?

 1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.

 2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.

 3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitutions

 Select the answer using the code given below:

 (a). 1 and 2 only

 (b). 2 and 3 only

 (c). 1 and 3 only

 (d). 1, 2 and 3

 

Explanation:

Powers of Municipalities in Part IXA: The 74th Amendment Act, 1992 added Part IXA to the Constitution, specifically dealing with Panchayats and Municipalities (including their powers and functions).

Emergency Provisions in Part XVIII: Part XVIII of the Constitution (Articles 352 to 360) accurately covers the Emergency provisions outlining situations like national emergency, state emergency, and financial emergency.

Amendment Provisions in Part XX: Part XX of the Constitution contains only Article 368, which precisely deals with the power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution and the procedure for it.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (d).

 

Q5. Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?

 (a). Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.

 (b). Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.

 (c). Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.

 (d). Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.

 

Explanation:

Option (a):  Inter-State trade and commerce: This is NOT a State subject. The Constitution empowers the central government to regulate trade that spans state borders. Part XIII : of the Constitution, which promotes free trade throughout the territory of India.

Option (b): Inter-State migration: This is a concurrent subject, meaning both the Union (Central Government) and the States can make laws on this topic. The Constitution doesn't explicitly categorize inter-state migration. Additionally, Article 19 guarantees freedom of movement and residence, limiting state restrictions.

Option (c): Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List. Maintaining uniformity in disease control and preventing cross-border spread necessitates central government control.

Option (d): Corporation tax: This is under the Union List. The central government levies corporation tax, but the Constitution allows sharing revenue with states.

The Union List handles subjects of national importance, while the State List deals with local governance.

The correct answer is Option (c): Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.

 

 

 Q6. Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?

 (a). Article 15

 (b). Article 16

 (c). Article 19

 (d). Article 21

 

Explanation:

The Right to Privacy in India is found under Article 21.

In 2017, a landmark Supreme Court judgment in the K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India case recognized the Right to Privacy as an intrinsic part of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty guaranteed under Article 21. This verdict established privacy as a fundamental right in India.

Article 15 prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.

Article 16 guarantees equality of opportunity in public employment.

Article 19 protects fundamental rights like freedom of speech and expression.

So, the correct answer is (d).

 

Q7. What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs?

 1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee

 2. Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs

 3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters

 Select the correct answer using the code given below:

 (a). 1, 2 and 3

 (b). 1 and 2 only

 (c). 2 and 3 only

 (d). 1 and 3 only

 

Explanation:

The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs has several key duties:

●     Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee.

●     Principal Military Advisor to the Defence Minister.

●     Head of the Department of Military Affairs.

●     Advisory Role in the Nuclear Command Authority.

●     Promoting jointness and integration among the armed forces.

●     Implementation of defence reforms.

●     Coordination of defence planning and acquisition.

So, the correct answer is Option (d).

 

Q8. Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called:

 (a). Operation Sankalp

 (b). Operation Maitri

 (c). Operation Sadbhavana

 (d). Operation Madad

 

Explanation:

●     Operation Sadbhavana: This is a well-known program in India where the Army works on improving the social and economic conditions of people in remote locations. They address basic needs through various initiatives like building schools, infrastructure development, and educational programs.

●     Operation Sankalp: Launched by the Indian Navy, this operation safeguards the security of the maritime domain in regions like the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman.

●     Operation Maitri: This refers to humanitarian assistance and disaster relief missions undertaken by the Indian Armed Forces.  A well-known example is their aid to Nepal after the 2015 earthquake.

●     Operation Madad: Similar to Operation Maitri, this is the Indian Navy's specific effort to provide humanitarian assistance and disaster relief during natural calamities, both in India and neighboring countries.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option (c).

 

 Q9. The longest border between any two countries in the world is between:

 (a). Canada and the United States of America

 (b). Chile and Argentina

 (c). China and India

 (d). Kazakhstan and Russian Federation

 

Explanation:

●     The Canada and the United States of America border stretches for an impressive 8,891 kilometers (5,525 miles), making it the world's longest international land border. It traverses diverse landscapes, from the Atlantic and Pacific oceans to the Great Lakes and the Arctic.

●     Chile and Argentina: This border is indeed quite long, snaking along the Andes mountains for approximately 6,691 kilometers (4,160 miles). It's the second-longest land border in the Americas.

●     China and India: The Sino-Indian border is a complex one, with some disputed territories. The estimated length varies depending on the definition used, but it's generally around 3,440 kilometers (2,140 miles).

●     Kazakhstan and Russian Federation: This border stretches for a significant distance of approximately 7,644 kilometers (4,750 miles). It's the world's second-longest land border after the US-Canada one.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option (a).

 

Q10. Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?

 1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.

 2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.

 3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.

 Select the answer using the code given below :

 (a). 1 and 2 only

 (b). 2 and 3 only

 (c). 1 and 3 only

 (d). 1, 2 and 3

 

Explanation:

●     The Ethics Committee actually started as an ad-hoc committee. While it functions as a standing committee now, it wasn't always that way.

●     Any person, not just a Member of Parliament, can file a complaint regarding unethical conduct of an MP. This ensures wider accountability.

●     The Committee avoids taking up sub-judice matters to prevent interference with ongoing legal proceedings.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option (c).

 

Q11. Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?

 (a). C. Rajagopalachari

 (b). Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

 (c). T.T. Krishnamachari

 (d). Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

 

Explanation:

Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha served as the provisional or temporary President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent president.

His position and the context:

●     Provisional President: He was chosen as the temporary President of the Constituent Assembly on December 9, 1946, during its first meeting.

●     Reason for Temporary Role: Since the Assembly was new, a formal election for a permanent president hadn't been conducted yet. Dr. Sinha, being the eldest member of the Assembly, was chosen to preside over the initial proceedings following a common practice in parliamentary systems.

●     Short Tenure: His role as the Provisional President lasted only two days. On December 11, 1946, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was formally elected as the permanent President.

Why other options are incorrect:

1. C. Rajagopalachari: While a prominent figure in Indian independence, he wasn't associated with the Constituent Assembly's presidency. He served as the last Governor-General of India.
2. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar: Though crucial to the Constitution's creation, Dr. Ambedkar chaired the Drafting Committee, responsible for drafting the final document.
3. T.T. Krishnamachari: An important member of the Assembly, he didn't hold the presidency. He later became India's Finance Minister.

So, the correct answer is Option (d).

 

 

Q12. With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:

1.  1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
2.  Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.

 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 (a). 1 only

 (b). 2 only

 (c). Both 1 and 2

 (d). Neither 1 nor 2

 

Explanation:  

The Government of India Act of 1935 did indeed propose the establishment of an All-India Federation consisting of both British Indian provinces and princely states. However, defense and foreign affairs were not under the control of the federal legislature. These crucial aspects remained under the control of the British government.

Statement 1: Correct. The Act proposed an All-India Federation, though it ultimately didn't fully form due to princely state reservations.

Statement 2: Incorrect. Defense and Foreign Affairs remained under British control via the Governor-General, highlighting their continued dominance.

So, the correct answer is Option (a).

 

Q13. Which one of the following is a work attributed to playwright Bhasa?

 (a). Kavyalankara

 (b). Natyashastra

 (c). Madhyama-vyayoga

 (d). Mahabhashya

 

Explanation:

Madhyama-vyayoga is a Sanskrit play attributed to the ancient Indian playwright Bhasa. It is a captivating tale of mistaken identity, intrigue, and the power of love. The play revolves around a priest's son, Bhima, who is accidentally switched at birth with a prince. Years later, the truth is revealed, and Bhima must navigate the complexities of his dual heritage and the challenges of reclaiming his rightful place.

Kavyalankara, Natyashastra, and Mahabhashya are not works attributed to Bhasa:

●     Kavyalankara is a treatise on Sanskrit poetics written by Bhamaha.

●     Natyashastra is a comprehensive work on Indian performing arts, traditionally attributed to sage Bharata.

●     Mahabhashya is a commentary on Panini's Ashtādhyāyī, a Sanskrit grammar treatise, written by Patañjali.

Bhasa's plays are known for their vivid storytelling, nuanced characters, and exploration of universal themes. Madhyama-vyayoga stands as a testament to his mastery of the dramatic form, and it continues to be performed and appreciated today.

The correct answer is Option (c).

 

 Q14. Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk, who travelled to China at the end of the fourth century AD, was the author of a commentary on :

 (a). Prajnaparamita Sutra

 (b). Visuddhimagga

 (c). Sarvastivada Vinaya

 (d). Lalitavistara

 

 Explanation:

Prajnaparamita Sutra: While there are many commentaries on the Prajnaparamita Sutra, Sanghabhuti is not historically associated with writing one.

Visuddhimagga: This text is from the Theravada tradition, and Sanghabhuti is identified as a Mahayana scholar. Commentaries on the Visuddhimagga are typically by Theravada monks.

Sarvastivada Vinaya: This is the monastic code of the Sarvastivada school of Buddhism. Sanghabhuti's expertise aligns with this tradition, making him a likely author of a commentary on this specific Vinaya text.

Lalitavistara: This Mahayana text details the life of the Buddha. While commentaries exist, Sanghabhuti is not known for writing one on this particular text.

The correct answer is Option (c).

 

 Q15. Consider the following properties included in the World Heritage List released by UNESCO:

1.  Shantiniketan
2.  Rani-ki-Vav
3.  Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas
4.  Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya

 How many of the above properties were included in 2023?

 (a). Only one

 (b). Only two

 (c). Only three

 (d). All four

 Explanation:

Both Santiniketan and the Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas were inscribed on the World Heritage List in September 2023 by UNESCO.

While the Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya is a UNESCO World Heritage Site, it was inscribed in 2002. Rani ki Vav was also inscribed in 2014 .

The correct answer is Option (b).

 

Q16. As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:

 1. Addition

 2. Variation

 3. Repeal

 Select the correct answer using the code given below:

 (a). 1 and 2 only

 (b). 2 and 3 only

 (c). 1 and 3 only

 (d). 1, 2 and 3

 

 Explanation:

Article 368 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to amend the constitution through a special procedure. This amendment process allows for the modification of the Constitution by way of:

●     Addition: Introducing new provisions that weren't there before.

●     Variation: Changing existing provisions in the Constitution.

●     Repeal: Removing provisions that are no longer relevant or desirable.

These three methods (addition, variation, and repeal) provide Parliament with the flexibility to adapt the Constitution to changing circumstances and national needs.

The correct answer is Option (d).

 

Q17. Consider the following countries :

 1. Italy

 2. Japan

 3. Nigeria

 4. South Korea

 5. South Africa

Which of the above countries are frequently mentioned in the media for their low birth rates, or ageing population or declining population?

 (a). 1, 2 and 4

 (b). 1, 3 and 5

 (c). 2 and 4 only

 (d). 3 and 5 only

 

Explanation:

Countries like Italy, Japan, and South Korea are frequently mentioned in the media for their low birth rates and ageing populations. These countries have faced a decline in fertility rates for several decades, leading to a shrinking workforce and an increasing burden on social security systems.

●     Italy: Struggles with a low birth rate and an ageing population.

●     Japan: Has the world's second-largest ageing population and a very low birth rate.

●     South Korea: Has the world's lowest fertility rate, raising concerns about its future population.

Nigeria and South Africa have different demographic trends:

●     Nigeria: Has a high fertility rate and a young population.

●     South Africa: Has a moderate fertility rate, but faces challenges like HIV/AIDS which can impact life expectancy.

The correct answer is Option (a).

 

Q18. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?

1.  Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
2.  A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
4.  Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.

 Select the answer using the code given below :

 (a). 1 and 2 only

 (b). 2 and 3 only

 (c). 1, 2 and 3

 (d). 1, 3 and 4

 

Explanation:

Statement 1: Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills. - True. Article 109 of the Indian Constitution outlines the special procedure for handling Money Bills in Parliament. This procedure gives primacy to the Lok Sabha (lower house) in financial matters.

 

Statement 2: A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States. - True. Money Bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, not the Rajya Sabha (upper house).

Statement 3: The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it. - True. The Rajya Sabha has limited powers regarding Money Bills. It can discuss the Bill and recommend changes, but it cannot reject the Bill altogether. The Lok Sabha has the final say on the Bill.

Statement 4: Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha. - False. The Lok Sabha is not obligated to accept amendments suggested by the Rajya Sabha on a Money Bill. The Lok Sabha can choose to accept or reject these amendments.

Therefore, only statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. The special procedure for Money Bills empowers the Lok Sabha in financial legislation.

The correct answer is Option (c).

 

Q19. Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces?

      Army                                  Airforce                         Navy

 1. Brigadier                       Air Commander           Commodore

 2. Major                           Air Vice Marshal          Air Vice Marshal

 3. Major                           Squadron Leader          Lieutenant Commander

 4. Lieutenant Colonel       Group Captain             Captain

 Select the correct answer using the code given below:

 (a). 1 and 4

 (b). 1 and 3

 (c). 2, 3 and 4

 (d). 3 only

 

Explanation:

Only option (d) is correct. It accurately matches Lieutenant General, Vice Admiral, and Air Marshal as equivalent ranks.

Five-Star Ranks (Not Awarded Recently)

●     Field Marshal (Army)

●     Admiral of the Fleet (Navy)

●     Marshal of the Air Force (Air Force)

Four-Star Ranks

●     General (Army)

●     Admiral (Navy)

●     Air Chief Marshal (Air Force)

Three-Star Ranks (Correct Match)

●     Lieutenant General (Army)

●     Vice Admiral (Navy)

●     Air Marshal (Air Force)

Two-Star Ranks

●     Major General (Army)

●     Rear Admiral (Navy)

●     Air Vice Marshal (Air Force)

 

Q20. The North Eastern Council (NEC)was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?

 1. Governor of the Constituent State

 2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State

 3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India

 4. The Home Minister of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

 (a). 1, 2 and 3 only

 (b). 1, 3 and 4 only

 (c). 2 and 4 only

 (d). 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Explanation:

The North Eastern Council Act, 1971, established the North Eastern Council (NEC). In 2002, the Act was amended to modify the composition of the council.

The members:

●     Statement (1, 2, and 3):

○     Governor of each constituent state (Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, and Tripura)

○     Chief Minister of each constituent state

○     Three members nominated by the President of India

●     Statement (4):

○     The Home Minister of India is not a member of the NEC.

The NEC functions as a regional planning body for the northeastern region of India. It focuses on economic and social development through various initiatives and programs.

The correct answer is (a). 1, 2 and 3 only.

 

 Q21. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’:

1.  Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
2.  This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
3.  There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.

 Which of the statements given above are correct?

 (a). 1, 2 and 3

 (b). 1 and 2 only

 (c). 2 and 3 only

 (d). 1 and 3 only

 

Explanation:

 Statement 1: Incorrect - The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam requires delimitation of constituencies to be done before implementing the reservation. Delimitation is tied to the census, and the next one can only be conducted after 2026. This means the provisions are unlikely to be in effect before the 2027 elections (post 18th Lok Sabha).

Statement 2: Correct - The bill proposes a 15-year reservation period, subject to review by the parliament after that.

Statement 3: Correct - The bill aims to reserve 1/3rd of seats for women, with provisions for existing reservations for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) to be accommodated within this quota.

The correct answer is (c). 2 and 3 only.

 

 Q22. Which of the following statements about ‘Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023’ are correct?

1. This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh.
2.  It commenced in Aundh (Pune).
3.  Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation.
4.  The Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise.

 Select the answer using the code given below :

 (a). 1, 2 and 3

 (b). 1, 2 and 4

 (c). 1, 3 and 4

 (d). 2, 3 and 4

 

Explanation:

Mitra Shakti is conducted between India and Sri Lanka.

The exercise took place in Aundh, Pune.

The exercise focused on rehearsing counter-terrorism responses

A small contingent from the Indian Air Force participated.

The correct answer is (d). 2, 3 and 4 only.

 

 

 Q23. A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:

 (a). a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.

 (b). the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.

 (c). the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.

 (d). the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy.

 

Explanation:

Option (a): A Writ of Prohibition is not directed at a single government officer, but rather a court exceeding its jurisdiction.

Option (b): Writ of Prohibition doesn't tell the legislature what to do, it prevents courts from acting beyond their authority.

Option (c): The lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.

Option (d): While a Writ can challenge the legality of a policy, it's not directed at the government itself, but the court overseeing its implementation.

The correct answer is (c).

 

 Q24. Consider the following statements:

 1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.

 2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 (a). 1 only

 (b). 2 only

 (c). Both 1 and 2

 (d). Neither 1 nor 2

 

Explanation:

Statement 1: Incorrect

The President of India, after consulting with the state governor, has the authority to declare a community as a Scheduled Tribe [Source: Constitution and official notifications regarding Scheduled Tribes]. The Governor plays a recommendatory role, not a decisive one.

Statement 2: Correct

The Scheduled Tribes are listed in the Constitution of India under the Fifth and Sixth Schedules. These schedules are specific to individual states. A community might be recognized as a Scheduled Tribe in one state based on its social and economic conditions, while not being recognized in another state where those factors might differ.

The correct statement is (b) : A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in one state need not be considered a Scheduled Tribe in another State.

 

 

Q25. With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements :

1.  The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
2.  At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.

 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 (a). 1 only

 (b). 2 only

 (c). Both 1 and 2

 (d). Neither 1 nor 2

 

Explanation:

The Annual Financial Statement, also known as the Union Budget, is presented in Parliament by the Finance Minister on behalf of the President.

 

Article 112 of the Indian Constitution states that no money bill can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President. A money bill deals with the imposition, abolition, regulation, or alteration of taxes and other financial matters.

So, the correct answer is C. Both 1 and 2

 

Q26. Who of the following is the author of the books The India Way and Why Bharat Matters?

 (a) Bhupender Yadav

 (b). Nalin Mehta

 (c). Shashi Tharoor

 (d). Subrahmanyam Jaishankar

 

Explanation:

The author of the books "The India Way" and "Why Bharat Matters" is (d). Subrahmanyam Jaishankar.

 

Q27. Consider the following pairs :

 Country             Reason for being in the news

 1. Argentina     Worst economic crisis

 2. Sudan          War between the country’s regular army and paramilitary forces

3. Turkey         Rescinded its membership of NATO

 How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a). Only one pair

(b). Only two pairs

(c). All three pairs

(d). None of the pairs

 

Explanation:

Argentina is currently facing an economic crisis.

Sudan has had tensions and clashes between its military and paramilitary forces.

Turkey has not rescinded its membership of NATO.

So, the correct answer is (b) Only two pairs

 

 Q28. Consider the following statements:

 Statement-I: Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe.
 Statement-II: Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea.

 Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

 (a). Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

 (b). Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

 (c). Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

 (d). Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

 

Explanation:

Statement-I: The Sumed pipeline is indeed a strategic route for transporting oil from the Persian Gulf to Europe. It provides an alternative route to the Suez Canal, bypassing the need for ships to navigate that waterway.

Statement-II: The Sumed pipeline does connect the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea. This physical connection is what makes it a viable alternative route for oil shipments.

The answer is: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

 

Q29. Consider the following statements :

1.  The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form.
2.  No water enters the Red Sea from rivers.

 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 (a). 1 only

 (b). 2 only

 (c). Both 1 and 2

 (d). Neither 1 nor 2

 

Explanation:

Statement 1: The Red Sea region receives very little rainfall.

Statement 2: Major rivers are absent around the Red Sea.

Therefore, option (c) both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

 

Q30. According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions?

 (a). Locomotives using fossil fuels

 (b). Ships using fossil fuels

 (c). Extraction of metals from ores

 (d). Power plants using fossil fuels

 

Explanation:

According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), the largest source of sulfur dioxide (SO2) emissions comes from the burning of fossil fuels by power plants and other industrial facilities [EPA: Sulfur Dioxide Basics]. While locomotives, ships, and metal extraction also contribute to SO2 emissions, they are considered smaller sources compared to power plants.

The correct statement is (d) : Power plants using fossil fuels

 

Q31. Consider the following statements:

 Statement-I: If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment.

 Statement-II: The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government.

 Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

 (a). Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

 (b). Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

 (c). Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

 (d). Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Explanation:

Statement-I: A default on US debt would mean the US government fails to fulfill its obligations to bondholders. This could involve missing interest payments or not repaying the principal amount at maturity. In such a scenario, bondholders wouldn't be able to readily access their money.

Statement-II: The US government debt isn't directly backed by physical assets like gold or oil. Instead, it relies on the US government's ability to generate future tax revenue and its reputation for honoring its debts.

Why Statement-II Doesn't Explain Statement-I Directly

While the lack of hard asset backing is a factor, it doesn't inherently lead to default. The US has a long history of paying its debts, and its strong economy inspires confidence in its ability to continue doing so. However, a combination of factors, such as excessive spending, economic downturns, or political instability, could lead the US to prioritize other needs over debt repayment, triggering a default.

The answer is: (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

 

 Q32. Consider the following statements :

 Statement-I: Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders.

 Statement-II: The syndicated loan can be a fixed amount/lump sum of funds, but cannot be a credit line.

 Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

 (a). Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

 (b). Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

 (c). Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

 (d). Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

 

Explanation:

Statement I is accurate. The core principle of syndicated lending is to distribute the risk of a borrower default among multiple lenders. By participating in the syndicate, each lender assumes only a portion of the total loan, reducing their individual exposure.

Statement II is incorrect. Syndicated loans can indeed be structured as both fixed amounts (lump sums) and credit lines. The specific structure depends on the needs of the borrower and the agreement reached among the lenders.

Therefore, answer (c) is correct.

 

Q33. Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee :

1.  It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy.
2.  It appears as a liability on the RBI’s balance sheet.
3.  It is insured against inflation by its very design.
4.  It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.

 Which of the statements given above are correct?

 (a). 1 and 2 only

 (b). 1 and 3 only

 (c). 2 and 4 only

 (d). 1, 2 and 4

 

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The digital rupee is indeed a sovereign currency issued by the RBI in alignment with its monetary policy.

Statement 2 is also correct: Like any other form of currency, the digital rupee appears as a liability on the RBI's balance sheet.

Statement 3 is incorrect: No currency, digital or physical, is inherently insured against inflation. Inflation is a broader economic phenomenon that affects all forms of currency.

Statement 4 is also incorrect: While the digital rupee is intended to be freely convertible, complete convertibility against commercial bank money and cash is a complex issue and might not be fully implemented initially.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (a).

 

Q34. With reference to ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the following epithets?

1.   Nayaputta
2.  Shakyamuni
3.  Tathagata

 Select the correct answer using the code given below:

 (a). 1 only

 (b). 2 and 3 only

 (c). 1, 2 and 3

 (d). None of the above are epithets of Gautama Buddha

 

Explanation:

Shakyamuni means "Sage of the Shakya clan," referring to Buddha's clan.

Tathagata is a title used by Buddha to describe himself, often translated as "Thus Come One" or "One Who Has Gone Thus."

"Nayaputta" is not an epithet of Gautama Buddha.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (b).

 

 Q35. Consider the following information:

 Archaeological State        Site                 Description

 1. Chandraketugarh         Odisha            Trading Port town

 2. Inamgaon               Maharashtra         Chalcolithic site

 3. Mangadu                    Kerala                Megalithic site

 4. Salihundam        Andhra Pradesh         Rock-cut cave shrines

 In which of the above rows is the given information correctly matched ?

 (a). 1 and 2

 (b). 2 and 3

 (c). 3 and 4

 (d). 1 and 4

 

Explanation:

Inamgaon is indeed a Chalcolithic site located in Maharashtra.

Mangadu is a well-known Megalithic site in Kerala.

The information for Chandraketugarh and Salihundam is incorrect.

●     Chandraketugarh is indeed located in West Bengal and was a prominent trading port town.

●     Salihundam is indeed renowned for its Buddhist monuments, not rock-cut caves. It's a significant Buddhist site in Andhra Pradesh.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (b).

 

Q36. Who of the following rulers of medieval India gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal?

 (a). Krishnadevaraya

 (b). Narasimha Saluva

 (c). Muhammad Shah III

 (d). Yusuf Adil Shah

 

Explanation:

Krishnadevaraya, the illustrious ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire, granted permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal. This strategic move facilitated trade relations and strengthened the alliance between the two powers.

The correct answer is option (a). Krishnadevaraya

 

Q37. With reference to revenue collection by Cornwallis, consider the following statements:

 1. Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collection, the peasants were exempted from revenue payment in case of bad harvests or natural calamities.

 2. Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the state, on or before the fixed date, he would be removed from his Zamindari.

 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 (a). 1 only

 (b). 2 only

 (c). Both 1 and 2

 (d). Neither 1 nor 2

 

Explanation:

Statement 2 is correct. Under the Permanent Settlement, Zamindars were given the right to collect revenue from peasants and pay a fixed amount to the British East India Company. If they failed to pay on time, they could lose their Zamindari.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Ryotwari Settlement, introduced later, dealt directly with the peasants (ryots) and not the Zamindars. While there were provisions for relief in some cases, it was not a blanket exemption for bad harvests or natural calamities.

Therefore, option (b) is correct.

 

Q38. Consider the following statements:

 1. There are no parables in Upanishads.

 2. Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas.

 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 (a). 1 only

 (b). 2 only

 (c). Both 1 and 2

 (d). Neither 1 nor 2

 

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. While Upanishads primarily focus on philosophical and metaphysical questions, they do contain allegorical narratives and symbolic stories, which can be considered similar to parables.

Statement 2 is correct. Upanishads are generally considered to be older than the Puranas. They represent the philosophical culmination of the Vedic period, while the Puranas emerged later, synthesizing various elements of Vedic thought, mythology, and history.

The correct answer is option (b).

 

 Q39. Consider the following statements :

1.  India is a member of the International Grains Council.
2.  A Country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat.

 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a). 1 only

 (b). 2 only

 (c). Both 1 and 2

 (d). Neither 1 nor 2

 

Explanation:

Statement 1: India is a member of the International Grains Council. This statement is correct.

Statement 2: A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat. This statement is incorrect.

While the IGC is a significant platform for discussions and information sharing related to grains, it is not a mandatory requirement for countries to be members to engage in rice and wheat trade. Many countries export and import these commodities without being members of the IGC.

Therefore, the answer is option (a). 1 only.

 

Q40. Which one of the following was the latest inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO?

 (a). Chhau dance

 (b). Durga puja

 (c). Garba dance

 (d). Kumbh mela

 

Explanation:

●     Garba of Gujarat was officially recognized as an Intangible Cultural Heritage by UNESCO in December 2023.

○     This prestigious title was awarded during the 18th meeting of the Intergovernmental Committee held in Kasane, Botswana.

○     The recognition highlights the significance of Garba as a unifying force promoting social and gender equality.

●     Chhau dance: Inscribed in 2010

●     Durga Puja in Kolkata: Inscribed in December 2021

●     Kumbh Mela: Inscribed in 2017

Therefore, the answer is option (c). Garba dance

 

Q41. Consider the following statements :

 Statement-I: There is instability and a worsening security situation in the Sahel region.

 Statement-II: There have been military takeovers/coups d’état in several countries of the Sahel region in the recent past.

 Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

 (a). Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I Statement-II explains

 (b). Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

 (c). Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

 (d). Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

 

Explanation:

Statement I is accurate: The Sahel region has been experiencing significant instability and a deteriorating security situation.

Statement II is also correct: Several countries in the Sahel region have faced military coups in recent years.

Statement II explains Statement I: The frequent military coups have contributed to the overall instability and worsened security conditions in the Sahel.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

 

Q42. Consider the following statements:

 Statement-I: India does not import apples from the United States of America.

 Statement-II: In India, the law prohibits the import of Genetically Modified food without the approval of the competent authority.

 Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

 (a). Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

 (b). Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

 (c). Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

 (d). Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

 

Explanation:

Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

Statement I: India does import apples from the United States of America. This statement is incorrect.

Statement II: India does indeed have strict regulations on the import of Genetically Modified (GM) food, requiring approval from competent authorities. This statement is correct.

Therefore, only option (d) is correct.

 

Q43. With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements :

 While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration

 1. He/She shall not preside.

 2. He/She shall not have the right to speak.

3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.

 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 (a). 1 only

 (b). 1 and 2 only

 (c). 2 and 3 only

 (d). 1, 2 and 3

 

Explanation:

The Speaker cannot preside over the proceedings when a resolution for their removal is being discussed.

The Speaker can participate in the debate and express their views.

The Speaker can vote on the resolution but does not have a casting vote.

Therefore, only option (a) is correct.

 

Q44. With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

 1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.

 2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

 3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a). 1 only

(b). 1 and 2

(c). 2 and 3

(d). 3 only

 

Explanation:

Statement 1: A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution. This is accurate. When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, all pending business, including bills, is terminated.

Statement 2: A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. This is also correct. Even if a bill has cleared the Lok Sabha, if it's still under consideration by the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the bill lapses.

Statement 3: If the President of India has notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting to consider a bill, that bill does not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. This is incorrect. A joint sitting is a mechanism to resolve differences between the two Houses. If the Lok Sabha is dissolved before the joint sitting can be convened, the bill lapses regardless of the President's earlier notification.

Therefore, option (b) is correct.

 

Q45. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements :

1.   Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
2.   Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India propagating the House which is in session.
3.  Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 (a). 1 only

 (b). 1 and 2

 (c). 2 and 3

 (d). 3 only

 

Explanation:

Statement 1: The President generally acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers in matters of prorogation, just as in other functions.

Statement 2: While prorogation typically follows adjournment sine die, the President technically has the power to prorogue a House even while it's in session.

Statement 3: The President usually dissolves the Lok Sabha based on the Council of Ministers' advice, except in exceptional situations like political crises or a vote of no confidence.

Statements 2 and 3 are accurate portrayals of the President's powers regarding prorogation and dissolution.

Prorogation ends a parliamentary session, and Parliament remains prorogued until the next session begins.

The President holds the power to summon and prorogue either House of Parliament or dissolve the Lok Sabha.

The correct answer is option (c)

 

 Q46. Consider the following statements:

 Statement-I : The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently.

 Statement-II : The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time.

 Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a). Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b). Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c). Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d). Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

 

Explanation:

Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect:

Statement I: The European Parliament recently approved the Net-Zero Industry Act, which aims to increase the production of net-zero technology within the European Union. The act is part of the green deal industrial plan, along with the critical raw materials act and the electricity market design reform. The act's objectives include:

●     Setting clear objectives and monitoring mechanisms to improve investment certainty, policy focus, and coordination

●     Lowering administrative burdens for developing net-zero manufacturing projects

●     Facilitating access to markets through public procurement procedures and auctions, as well as schemes to support private demand

Statement II

The European Union aims to achieve carbon neutrality by 2050, not 2040. This means having no net greenhouse gas emissions.

So, the correct answer is option (c)

 

Q47. Consider the following statements:

 Statement-I: Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries.

 Statement-II: Venezuela has the world’s largest oil reserves.

 Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

 (a). Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

 (b). Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

 (c). Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

 (d). Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

 

Explanation:

Statement I: Incorrect: Venezuela has been experiencing a severe economic crisis for several years, leading to massive emigration. There has been no rapid recovery, and the situation for many Venezuelans remains dire.

Statement II: Correct: Venezuela does indeed possess the world's largest oil reserves.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (d)

 

 Q48. With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements :

1.  To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.
2.  Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitized.
3.  An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

 (a). 1 and 2 only

 (b). 2 and 3 only

 (c). 1 and 3 only

 (d). 1, 2 and 3

 

Explanation:

All three statements are correct about the Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme (DILRMP):

100% Central Funding: DILRMP is a Central Sector Scheme, meaning the entire funding comes from the Central Government.

Digitization of Cadastral Maps: This is a core component of the program to create a comprehensive digital land record database.

Transliteration of Records of Rights: The program aims to make land records accessible to people by translating them into different languages recognized by the Constitution.

The correct answer is option(d).

 

Q49. With reference to the ‘Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan’, consider the following statements:

 1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility.

 2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities.

 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 (a). 1 only

 (b). 2 only

 (c). Both 1 and 2

 (d). Neither 1 nor 2

 

Explanation:

PMSMA focuses primarily on antenatal care and doesn't guarantee post-pregnancy healthcare services.

The program actively involves the private sector through voluntary participation.

https://pmsma.mohfw.gov.in/about-scheme/?lang=en

The correct answer is option(b).

 

Q50. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements:

1.  The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years.
2.  Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary.
3.  Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of ₹ 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years.
4. Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters.

 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 (a). 1, 3 and 4

 (b). 2 and 3 only

 (c). 2 only

 (d). 2, 3 and 4

 

Explanation:

The Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme for unorganized workers with a monthly income of Rs 15,000 or less. The following statements about the scheme are true:

The entry age for enrollment is between 18 and 40 years.

The beneficiary must contribute to the scheme until they turn 60 years old.

The monthly contribution ranges from Rs 55 to Rs 200, depending on the beneficiary's age when they enter the scheme. The beneficiary pays 50% of the contribution.

Once the beneficiary turns 60, they will receive a minimum pension of Rs 3,000 per month through DBT.

If the beneficiary dies, only their spouse is eligible for a family pension of 50% of the minimum pension.

Eligible subscribers can enroll in the scheme at their nearest Common Services Centre (CSC) using their Aadhaar number and savings bank account or Jan-Dhan account number.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (b)

 

Q51. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.

Statement-II: Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gasses in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a). Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b). Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c). Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d). Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

 

Explanation:

While the Earth's surface is initially heated by incoming solar radiation (shortwave), this energy is then re-radiated back into the atmosphere as terrestrial radiation (longwave). It's the terrestrial radiation that primarily heats the atmosphere.

Greenhouse gasses are indeed efficient at absorbing longwave radiation, which is why they contribute to the greenhouse effect.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (d)

 

Q52. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles.

Statement-II: At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convection currents.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a). Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b). Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c). Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d). Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

 

Explanation:

The troposphere is indeed thicker at the equator due to higher temperatures causing more expansion.

Intense solar heating at the equator leads to strong convection currents which transport heat upwards.

The strong convection currents caused by intense solar heating at the equator are the primary reason for the increased thickness of the troposphere compared to the poles.

Therefore, Statement II explains Statement I.

So, the correct answer is (a).

 

Q53. Consider the following:

1. Pyroclastic debris

2. Ash and dust

3. Nitrogen compounds

4. Sulphur compounds

How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions?

(a). Only one

(b). Only two

(c). Only three

(d). All four

 

Explanation:

All four of the options listed are products of volcanic eruptions.

●     Pyroclastic debris is solid volcanic matter ejected from a volcano.

●     Ash and dust are fine-grained volcanic materials.

●     Nitrogen compounds are released into the atmosphere during volcanic eruptions.

●     Sulfur compounds, particularly sulfur dioxide, are also released in significant quantities.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d). All four.

 

Q54. Which of the following is/are correct inference/inferences from isothermal maps in the month January?

1. The isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent.

2. The presence of cold ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the North Atlantic Ocean colder and the isotherms bend towards the north.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a). 1 only

(b). 2 only

(c). Both 1 and 2

(d). Neither 1 nor 2

 

Explanation:

In January, the northern hemisphere experiences winter. Land cools down faster than water. So, temperatures over land are lower compared to oceans. This leads to a southward shift of isotherms over land and a northward shift over oceans.

The Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift are warm ocean currents. They actually warm the North Atlantic Ocean, causing isotherms to bend northward in that region.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

 

Q55. Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa producers in the world?

(a). Algeria and Morocco

(b). Botswana and Namibia

(c). Côte d’Ivoire and Ghana

(d). Madagascar and Mozambique

 

Explanation:

Côte d'Ivoire and Ghana are the world's two largest cocoa producers, accounting for nearly 60% of the world's cocoa production:

Côte d'Ivoire: The world's largest producer of cocoa

Ghana: The second largest producer of cocoa, contributing to 25% of global cocoa production

Together, these two West African nations are responsible for the majority of the world's cocoa supply.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

 

Q56. With reference to the Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagra from West to East, which one of the following sequences is correct?

(a). Ghaghara – Gomati – Gandak – Kosi

(b). Gomati - Ghaghara – Gandak – Kosi

(c). Ghaghara – Gomati – Kosi – Gandak

(d). Gomati - Ghaghara - Kosi - Gandak

 

Explanation:

The correct sequence of Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from west to east is Gomati, Ghaghara, Gandak, and Kosi:

Therefore, the correct answer is (b). Gomati - Ghaghara – Gandak – Kosi

 

Q57. Consider the following statements :

Statement-I: Rainfall is one of the reasons for weathering of rocks.

Statement-II: Rain water contains carbon dioxide in solution.

Statement-III: Rain water contains atmospheric oxygen.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a). Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I

(b). Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I

(c). Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement-I

(d). Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct

 

Explanation:

Rainfall is a major factor in both physical and chemical weathering.

Rainwater absorbs carbon dioxide from the atmosphere, forming carbonic acid, which contributes to chemical weathering.

Rainwater comes in contact with the atmosphere and absorbs oxygen, which plays a role in oxidation, a type of chemical weathering.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

 

Q58. Consider the following countries :

1. Finland

2. Germany

3. Norway

4. Russia

How many of the above countries have a border with the North Sea?

(a). Only one

(b). Only two

(c). Only three

(d). All four

 

Explanation:

Only Germany and Norway from the given options share a border with the North Sea. Finland and Russia do not have coastlines on the North Sea.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

 

Q59. Consider the following information:

Waterfall - Region - River

1. Dhuandhar - Malwa - Narmada

2. Hundru - Chota Nagpur - Subarnarekha

3. Gersoppa - Western Ghats - Netravati

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a). Only one

(b). Only two

(c). All three

(d). None

 

Explanation:

Dhuandhar Falls is indeed on the Narmada River, but it's not associated with the Malwa region.

Hundru Falls is correctly matched with the Chota Nagpur Plateau and the Subarnarekha River.  

Gersoppa Falls (Jog Falls) is on the Sharavathi River in the Western Ghats.  

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

 

Q60. Consider the following information :

Region - Name of the mountain range - Type of mountain

1. Central Asia - Vosges - Fold mountain

2. Europe - Alps - Block mountain

3. North America - Appalachians - Fold mountain

4. South America - Andes - Fold mountain

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a). Only one

(b). Only two

(c). Only three

(d). All four

 

Explanation:

The Vosges are actually located in Europe and are classified as block mountains.

The Alps are one of the youngest fold mountains with jagged relief.

The Appalachians are indeed folded mountains.

The Andes are also folded mountains.

Therefore, the answer is (b). Only two

 

Q61. The organisms Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater are:

(a). Birds

(b). Fish

(c). Insects

(d). Reptiles

Explanation:

Cicadas, froghoppers, and pond skaters are all insects.

Therefore, the answer is (c).

 

Q62. Consider the following statements :

Statement-I: Many chewing gums found in the market are considered a source of environmental pollution.

Statement-II: Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a). Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b). Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c). Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d). Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

 

Explanation:

Statement I: Chewing gum, when discarded improperly, can stick to surfaces and is difficult to remove, leading to environmental pollution.

Statement II: The base of many chewing gums is made from synthetic rubber, which is a type of plastic. This non-biodegradable component contributes to the environmental pollution caused by chewing gum.

Relationship between the statements: The fact that many chewing gums contain plastic as a gum base directly explains why they are a source of environmental pollution.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a). Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.

Q63. Consider the following pairs:

Country - Animal found in its natural habitat

1. Brazil - Indri

2. Indonesia - Elk

3. Madagascar - Bonobo

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?

(a). Only one

(b). Only two

(c). All three

(d). None

 

Explanation:

Indri is native to Madagascar, not Brazil.  

Elk are primarily found in North America and parts of Europe and Asia, not Indonesia.  

Bonobos are found in the Democratic Republic of Congo, not Madagascar.

Therefore, the answer is (d).

 

Q64. Consider the following statements regarding World Toilet Organization :

1. It is one of the agencies of the United Nations.
2. World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are the initiatives of this organization, to inspire action to tackle the global sanitation crisis.
3. The main focus of its function is to grant funds to the least developed countries and developing countries to achieve the end of open defecation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a). 2 only

(b). 3 only

(c). 1 and 2

(d). 2 and 3

 

Explanation:

Statement 1: Incorrect- The World Toilet Organization is an independent non-profit organization, not a UN agency.

Statement 2: Correct- These are indeed key initiatives of the World Toilet Organization.

Statement 3: Incorrect- While the organization aims to end open defecation, its primary focus is on advocacy, awareness, and capacity building, not direct financial aid.

Therefore, the answer is (a).

 

Q65. Consider the following statements :

1. Lions do not have a particular breeding season.
2. Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs don't roar.
3. Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a). 1 and 2 only

(b). 2 and 3 only

(c). 1 and 3 only

(d). 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1: Correct - Lions do not have a particular breeding season. Lions can breed throughout the year.

Statement 2: Correct - Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs don't roar. Cheetahs have a different bone structure in their throat that prevents them from roaring.

Statement 3: Incorrect - Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking. Both male lions and male leopards use scent marking to establish and defend their territories.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Therefore, the answer is (a): Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

 

Q66. Which one of the following is the correct description of 100 Million Farmers?

(a). It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience.

(b). It is an international alliance and a network of individuals and farming organizations interested in supporting and strengthening the development of organic animal husbandry.

(c). It is a digital platform fully integrated with service providers and built on blockchain that lets buyers, sellers and third parties trade fertilizers quickly and securely.

(d). It is a platform with the mission of encouraging the farmers to form Farmer Product Organisations or Agribusiness Consortiums, thus facilitating the access to global open markets to sell their products.

 

Explanation:

100 Million Farmers is an initiative by the World Economic Forum (WEF) that aims to accelerate the transition to sustainable food and water systems. The initiative's goals include:

●     Reducing carbon emissions

●     Promoting nature-positive practices

●     Increasing farmer resilience

●     Positioning food and farmers as central pillars on the global climate and nature agenda

●     Accelerating collective action to scale climate-and nature-friendly agricultural practices

The initiative develops regional coalitions of public and private sector organizations, NGOs, and academic institutions. These coalitions work together to develop "lighthouse" public-private projects that aim to move local farming towards transformative change. The initiative's goal is to achieve net-zero and nature-positive food systems by 2030.

It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience.

This accurately describes the 100 Million Farmers initiative, which focuses on sustainable agriculture and climate action.

Therefore, the answer is (a)

 

Q67. Consider the following:

1. Battery storage
2. Biomass generators
3. Fuel cells
4. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units

How many of the above are considered Distributed Energy Resources?

(a). Only one

(b). Only two

(c). Only three

(d). All four

 

Explanation:

All four of the options listed are considered Distributed Energy Resources (DERs): battery storage, biomass generators, fuel cells, and rooftop solar photovoltaic units. DERs are small, local generation units that are connected to the distribution level of the grid. They are often renewable and can provide power close to where it's used.

●     Battery storage allows for storing energy for later use.

●     Biomass generators produce electricity from organic matter.

●     Fuel cells convert chemical energy into electrical energy.

●     Rooftop solar photovoltaic units generate electricity directly from sunlight.

All of these can be installed at individual locations or distributed across a system, making them DERs.

Some more information about DERs:

Connection: DERs connect to the lower-voltage distribution grid, similar to businesses and residences, instead of the high-voltage transmission grid.

Benefits: DERs can help meet energy and cost saving goals, and provide environmental benefits. They can also help strengthen grid resilience and mitigate grid disturbances.

Examples: Other examples of DERs include wind generating units, combined heat and power units, and batteries in electric vehicles that can export power back to the grid

So, The correct answer is (d): All four

 

Q68. Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has coevolved with it and that is the only insect that can pollinate this tree?

(a). Fig

(b). Mahua

(c). Sandalwood

(d). Silk cotton

 

Explanation:

The fig tree (Ficus microcarpa) and fig wasps have a unique coevolutionary relationship:

A specific species of fig tree can only be pollinated by a specific species of fig wasp. The wasps lay eggs in the fig's fruit, and the two species depend on each other to reproduce. This is an example of coevolution, which is when two or more species reciprocally affect each other's evolution through natural selection.

So, The correct answer is (a): Fig

 

Q69. Consider the following:

1. Butterflies

2. Fish

3. Frogs

How many of the above have poisonous species among them?

(a). Only one

(b). Only two

(c). All three

(d). None

 

Explanation:

All three categories have poisonous species:

●     Butterflies: Some species, like Monarch butterflies, have toxic wings with bright colors to warn predators.

●     Fish: Over 1,000 species are poisonous, including lionfish, stingrays, stone fish, and catfish. The Reef Stonefish is considered the most venomous.

●     Frogs: Poison dart frogs are among the most toxic species on Earth, with bright colors to warn predators. The Golden Poison Frog is the most poisonous.

Poison dart frogs get their toxins from their diet, which includes ants, mites, and centipedes. They are also known as poison arrow frogs because Native American tribes used their secretions to poison blowgun darts

So, The correct answer is (c): All three

 

Q70. Consider the following :

1. Cashew

2. Papaya

3. Red sanders

How many of the above trees are actually native to India?

(a). Only one

(b). Only two

(c). All three

(d). None

 

Explanation:

Cashew: While cashews are widely cultivated in India, their origin is actually Brazil.

Papaya: This tropical fruit is native to Mexico and Central America but is now grown in many tropical regions, including India.

Red sanders: This is a tree species endemic to the southern Indian states of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

So, only Red sanders is native to India.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a): Only one

 

Q71. Consider the following airports:

1. Donyi Polo Airport

2. Kushinagar International Airport

3. Vijayawada International Airport

In the recent past, which of the above have been constructed as Greenfield projects?

(a). 1 and 2 only

(b). 2 and 3 only

(c). 1 and 3 only

(d). 1, 2 and 3

 

Explanation:

Out of the three airports mentioned, Donyi Polo Airport and Kushinagar International Airport have been built as Greenfield projects. Vijayawada International Airport was an existing airport that was later upgraded to international status.

Donyi Polo Airport, also known as Hollongi Airport, is Arunachal Pradesh's first Greenfield airport. Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated it in November 2022.

Kushinagar International Airport was inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in October 2021 and received a license to operate as a customs notified airport in August 2021

Therefore, the correct answer is (a): 1 and 2 only

 

Q72. With reference to water vapour, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude.
2. Its percentage is maximum at the poles.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a). 1 only

(b). 2 only

(c). Both 1 and 2

(d). Neither 1 nor 2

 

Explanation:

Statement 1: Correct. Water vapor is indeed a gas, and its concentration generally decreases with altitude due to lower temperatures and pressure at higher altitudes

Statement 2: Incorrect. Water vapor content is generally higher in warmer regions, near the equator, and decreases towards the poles due to lower temperatures.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a): 1 only

 

Q73. Consider the following description:

1. Annual and daily range of temperatures is low.
2. Precipitation occurs throughout the year.
3. Precipitation varies between 50 cm - 250 cm.

What is this type of climate?

(a). Equatorial climate

(b). China type climate

(c). Humid subtropical climate

(d). Marine West coast climate

 

Explanation:

The climate described is a Marine West Coast climate. Here's why:

Low temperature range: Marine West Coast climates have small annual and daily temperature variations due to the moderating influence of the ocean.

Year-round precipitation: These climates experience precipitation throughout the year, with no distinct dry season.

Precipitation amount: The annual precipitation varies between 50 cm and 250 cm.

Moderate temperatures: Summer temperatures average between 15°C and 20°C, while winter temperatures range from 4°C to 10°C.

Examples of regions with a Marine West Coast climate include:

●     Northwestern Europe

●     The west coast of North America, north of California

●     Southern Chile

●     Southeastern Australia

●     New Zealand

These areas are characterized by cool, damp summers and mild, wet winters

Therefore, the correct answer is (d):

 

Q74. With reference to Coriolis force”, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It increases with increase in wind velocity.
2. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a). 1 only

(b). 2 only

(c). Both 1 and 2

(d). Neither 1 nor 2

 

Explanation:

Coriolis Force:

It increases with increase in wind velocity: The Coriolis force is directly proportional to the speed of the moving object. So, as wind velocity increases, the Coriolis force acting on it also increases.

It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator: The Coriolis force depends on the Earth's rotation. At the poles, the Earth's rotation has the maximum effect, making the Coriolis force strongest. At the equator, the Earth's rotation has no effect, resulting in zero Coriolis force.

So, the correct answer is (c).

 

Q75. On June 21 every year, which of the following latitude(s) experience(s) a sunlight of more than 12 hours?

1. Equator
2. Tropic of Cancer
3. Tropic of Capricorn
4. Arctic Circle

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a). 1 only

(b). 2 only

(c). 3 and 4

(d). 2 and 4

 

Explanation:

June 21st is the Summer Solstice in the Northern Hemisphere.

On this day, the Sun is directly overhead at the Tropic of Cancer. This results in more than 12 hours of daylight for all locations north of the equator, including the Tropic of Cancer itself.

The Arctic Circle experiences 24 hours of daylight on this day, known as the Midnight Sun.

Both the Tropic of Cancer and the Arctic Circle experience more than 12 hours of sunlight on June 21st.

So, the correct answer is (d).

 

Q76. One of the following regions has the world’s largest tropical peatland, which holds about three years worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuels; and the possible destruction of which can exert detrimental effects on the global climate. Which one of the following denotes that region?

(a). Amazon Basin

(b). Congo Basin

(c). Kikori Basin

(d). Rio de la Plata Basin

 

Explanation:

The Congo Basin is home to the world's largest tropical peatland. This vast peatland stores an immense amount of carbon, equivalent to approximately three years of global fossil fuel emissions. Its preservation is crucial in mitigating climate change, as its destruction would release significant amounts of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.

The correct answer is: (b) Congo Basin

 

Q77. With reference to perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) that are used in making many consumer products, consider the following statements :

1. PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging materials.
2. PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment.
3. Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a). 1 and 2 only

(b). 2 and 3 only

(c). 1 and 3 only

(d). 1, 2 and 3

 

Explanation:

PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging materials. This is due to their extensive use in various consumer products and their persistence in the environment.

PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment. The strong carbon-fluorine bond makes them resistant to breakdown.

Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies. Due to their persistence and resistance to breakdown, they can accumulate in the bodies of animals, including humans, over time.

All three statements are correct.

 

Q78. Consider the following:

1. Carabid beetles
2. Centipedes
3. Flies
4. Termites
5. Wasps

Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above kind of organisms?

(a). Only two

(b). Only three

(c). Only four

(d). All five

 

Explanation:

Parasitoid species are indeed found in flies, some beetles (like carabid beetles), and wasps.

Centipedes and termites do not typically have parasitoid species.

●     Centipedes are predators themselves, typically hunting and consuming other invertebrates.

●     Termites are primarily detritivores, feeding on dead plant matter.

The correct answer is: (b)

 

Q79. Consider the following plants:

1. Groundnut
2. Horse-gram
3. Soybean

How many of the above belong to the pea family?

(a). Only one

(b). Only two

(c). All three

(d). None

 

Explanation:

All three plants -

1. Groundnut,
2. Horse-gram, and
3. Soybean

- belong to the pea family (Fabaceae).

The correct answer is: (c)

 

Q80. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the vermin category in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.

Statement-II: The Indian Flying Fox feeds on the blood of other animals.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a). Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b). Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c). Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d). Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

 

Explanation:

 

Statement I: The Indian Flying Fox can be placed under the "vermin" category in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, but only under specific conditions and by a notification from the Central Government. This is usually done in areas where they cause significant damage to crops.

Statement II: The Indian Flying Fox is a fruit bat and primarily feeds on fruits, nectar, and pollen. It does not feed on blood like vampires.

Therefore, correct answer is option (c): Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

 

Q81. The total fertility rate in an economy is defined as:

(a). the number of children born per 1000 people in the population in a year.

(b). the number of children born to a couple in their lifetime in a given population.

(c). the birth rate minus death rate.

(d). the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.

 

Explanation:

The correct definition of the Total Fertility Rate (TFR).  The average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.

It's a hypothetical figure based on the current age-specific fertility rates in a population.

Historical trends: TFR has generally declined globally over the past few decades, with significant variations across regions and countries.

Demographic transition: The decline in TFR is often linked to the demographic transition, a shift from high birth and death rates to low birth and death rates.

Policy implications: Understanding TFR is crucial for policymakers in areas such as education, healthcare, and economic planning.

Therefore, correct answer is option (d)

 

Q82. Consider the following statements:

1. In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India.
2. In India, Foreign Institutional Investors can hold the Government Securities (G-Secs).
3. In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a). 1 and 2 only

(b). 3 only

(c). 1, 2 and 3

(d). 2 and 3 only

 

Explanation:

Statement 1: Incorrect - While NBFCs play a crucial role in the financial system, they generally do not have direct access to the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) window of the RBI. This facility is primarily meant for commercial banks.  

Statement 2: Correct - FIIs are indeed allowed to invest in G-Secs in India. This is a significant avenue for foreign investment in the Indian debt market.

Statement 3: Correct - India's stock exchanges have dedicated platforms for trading debt instruments, such as government bonds, corporate bonds, and other securities. This has facilitated the development of the debt market in the country.

Therefore, the answer is (d). 2 and 3 only

 

 

Q83. In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities?

1. Insurance Companies
2. Pension Funds
3. Retail Investors

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a). 1 and 2 only

(b). 2 and 3 only

(c). 1 and 3 only

(d). 1, 2 and 3

 

Explanation:

All three - Insurance Companies, Pension Funds, and Retail Investors - can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities in India.

Insurance Companies and Pension Funds are major institutional investors in these securities due to their long-term investment horizons and the need for secure returns.

Retail Investors can also invest in these securities through various investment avenues like mutual funds, directly through government securities accounts, or by purchasing bonds from the secondary market

Therefore, the answer is (d). 1, 2 and 3 only

 

Q84. Consider the following:

1. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF)
2. Motor vehicles
3. Currency swap

Which of the above is/are considered financial instruments?

(a). 1 only

(b). 2 and 3 only

(c). 1, 2 and 3

(d). 1 and 3 only

 

Explanation:

Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs) and Currency swap are considered financial instruments.

Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs): These are financial instruments that track an index, commodity, bond, or basket of assets. They are traded on stock exchanges.

Motor vehicles: These are tangible assets, not financial instruments. They represent physical property.

Currency swap: This is a financial instrument involving the exchange of one currency for another at a specified exchange rate.

Therefore, the answer is option (d).

 

Q85. With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs:

Economic activity    -     Sector

1. Storage of agricultural produce   -    Secondary

2. Dairy farm   -  Primary

3. Mineral exploration  -  Tertiary

4. Weaving cloth  -    Secondary 

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a). Only one

(b). Only two

(c). Only three

(d). All four

 

Explanation:

Sectors of the Economy

●     Primary Sector: Involves extraction of natural resources.  

●     Secondary Sector: Concerned with processing raw materials into finished goods.  

●     Tertiary Sector: Provides services.  

Analysis of Pairs

Storage of agricultural produce - Secondary: Incorrect. Storage is a service, so it belongs to the tertiary sector.  

Dairy farm - Primary: Correct. Dairy farming involves producing milk, a natural product.  

Mineral exploration - Tertiary: Incorrect. Exploring for minerals is part of extracting natural resources, thus belonging to the primary sector.  

Weaving cloth - Secondary: Correct. Weaving turns raw materials (cotton, silk, etc.) into cloth.

Only two pairs (Dairy farm - Primary and Weaving cloth - Secondary) are correctly matched.

 

Q86. Consider the following materials:

1. Agricultural residues
2. Corn grain
3. Wastewater treatment sludge
4. Wood mill waste

Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel ?

(a). 1 and 2 only

(b). 3 and 4 only

(c). 1, 2, 3 and 4

(d). 1, 3 and 4 only

 

Explanation:

All of the listed materials can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF).

●     Agricultural residues: These include materials like corn stalks, wheat straw, and rice husks, which can be converted into biofuels.

●     Corn grain: While corn is often used for food and ethanol production, it can also be a feedstock for SAF.

●     Wastewater treatment sludge: This material contains organic matter that can be processed into biofuels.

●     Wood mill waste: Sawdust and other wood byproducts can be converted into biofuels, including SAF.

The use of these materials as feedstock for SAF contributes to reducing greenhouse gas emissions and promoting sustainability in the aviation industry

Therefore, the answer is option (d).

 

Q87. With reference to physical capital in Indian economy, consider the following pairs:

Items       -     Category

1. Farmer’s plough  -  Working capital

2. Computer   -  Fixed capital

3. Yarn used by the weaver    -   Fixed capital

4. Petrol  -  Working capital

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a). Only one

(b). Only two

(c). Only three

(d). All four

 

Explanation:

Farmer’s plough - Working capital: Incorrect. A plough is a durable asset used repeatedly, so it's fixed capital.

Computer - Fixed capital: Correct. A computer is a durable asset used for a long time in production.  

Yarn used by the weaver - Fixed capital: Incorrect. Yarn is a raw material consumed in the production process, so it's working capital.  

Petrol - Working capital: Correct. Petrol is consumed during the production process and needs to be replenished regularly

Only two pairs (Computer - Fixed capital and Petrol - Working capital) are correctly matched.

 

Q88. Which one of the following words/phrases is most appropriately used to denote “an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds that can be accessed simultaneously by millions of users, who can exert property rights over virtual items?

(a). Big data analytics

(b). Cryptography

(c). Metaverse

(d). Virtual matrix

 

Explanation:

Metaverse is the most appropriate term.

Big data analytics: This refers to the process of examining large volumes of data to discover patterns and insights. It doesn't describe a virtual world.

Cryptography: This is the practice of securing information and communications through codes. While it might be a component of a metaverse (for example, to protect virtual property), it doesn't define the entire concept.

Virtual matrix: This is a more general term that could refer to any virtual environment. It doesn't specifically imply interoperability, simultaneous access, or property rights.

So, the correct answer is (c).

 

Q89. With reference to the rule/rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the following statements:

1. There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India.
2. For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a). 1 only

(b). 2 only

(c). Both 1 and 2

(d). Neither 1 nor 2

 

Explanation:

Statement 1: Incorrect - The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has a minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries (WOS) in India.

Statement 2: Correct - This is a requirement imposed by the RBI on WOS of foreign banks in India

Therefore, option (b) only 2 is correct.

 

Q90. With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements:

1. CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or its employees will not be considered as CSR activities.
2. CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a). 1 only

(b). 2 only

(c). Both 1 and 2

(d). Neither 1 nor 2

 

Explanation:

Only the first statement, "CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or its employees will not be considered as CSR activities," is correct. The second statement, "CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities," is incorrect.

Statement 1:

The Companies Act, 2013 states that CSR activities should benefit society or specific communities, not the company or its employees directly. Expenditures like employee benefits, sponsorship for marketing benefits, and activities fulfilling statutory obligations are not considered CSR activities.

Statement 2:

The Companies Act mandates that companies meeting certain criteria spend at least 2% of their average net profit from the preceding three financial years on CSR activities. This makes the statement incorrect.

The first statement accurately reflects the CSR rules in India.

Therefore, option (a) only 1  is correct.

 

Q91. With reference to radioisotope thermoelectric generators (RTGs), consider the following statements:

1. RTGs are miniature fission reactors.
2. RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecraft.
3. RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a). 1 and 2 only

(b). 2 and 3 only

(c). 1 and 3 only

(d). 1, 2 and 3

 

Explanation:

The following statements about radioisotope thermoelectric generators (RTGs) are correct:

Statement 2: RTGs are often used to power spacecraft systems, especially those that travel to deep space where solar power is not practical.

Statement 3: RTGs can use plutonium-238, which can be a byproduct of nuclear reactors and weapons development. However, NASA and other sources note that plutonium-238 used in RTGs is not weapon grade.

RTGs are a type of nuclear battery that use the decay of radioactive isotopes to generate electricity. They are also known as radioisotope power systems. RTGs are ideal for remote and harsh environments because they have no moving parts and are less likely to malfunction or wear out over time. They are often used in situations where other power sources, like batteries, fuel cells, or generators, are not economical or practical. For example, RTGs have been used to power satellites, space probes, and lighthouses in the Arctic Circle.

Therefore, the correct option is (b) only 2 and 3

 

Q92. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars.

Statement-II: Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a). Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b). Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c). Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d). Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Explanation:

Statement I is incorrect because giant stars actually have shorter lifespans than dwarf stars due to their faster rate of nuclear reactions. Statement II is correct as giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions compared to dwarf stars.

Statement II is correct: giant stars have a faster rate of nuclear reactions than dwarf stars. However, this means that giant stars actually have shorter lifespans than dwarf stars because they use up their hydrogen fuel faster.

Giant stars are more massive than dwarf stars, and their greater mass causes them to compress gas more. This gas pressure resists compression, but it's not enough to prevent the star from collapsing due to gravity. When the core temperature reaches about 10 million K, hydrogen fusion occurs, releasing energy that creates radiation pressure. This radiation pressure, combined with the gas pressure, balances the inward pull of gravity and prevents further collapse.

Giant stars also have a larger radius and luminosity than main-sequence stars with the same surface temperature. They can have radii up to a few hundred times that of the Sun, and luminosities between 10 and a few thousand times that of the Sun.

Therefore, the correct option is (d).

 

Q93. Which one of the following is synthesized in the human body that dilates blood vessels and increases blood flow?

(a). Nitric oxide

(b). Nitrous oxide

(c). Nitrogen dioxide

(d). Nitrogen pentoxide

 

Explanation:

 

Nitric oxide is a molecule produced in the body that plays a crucial role in various physiological processes, including vasodilation (widening of blood vessels). This leads to increased blood flow.

Therefore, the correct option is (a).

 

Q94. Consider the following activities:

1. Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft
2. Monitoring of precipitation
3. Tracking the migration of animals

In how many of the above activities can the radars be used?

(a). Only one

(b). Only two

(c). All three

(d). None

 

Explanation:

Radars can be used in two of the activities:

Monitoring of precipitation: Weather radars are specifically designed to detect and track precipitation.

Tracking the migration of animals: Especially birds, which can be detected by radar due to their size and flight patterns.

Radars are not used for identifying narcotics on passengers.

So, the correct answer is (b) Only two.

 

Q95. Consider the following aircraft:

1. Rafael
2. MiG-29
3. Tejas MK-1

How many of the above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft?

(a). Only one

(b). Only two

(c). All three

(d). None

 

Explanation:

Rafael is often categorized as a 4.5 generation fighter.  

MiG-29 and Tejas MK-1 are both considered 4th generation fighters

Therefore, the answer is (d)

 

Q96. In which of the following are hydrogels used ?

1. Controlled drug delivery in patients
2. Mobile air-conditioning systems
3. Preparation of industrial lubricants

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a). 1 only

(b). 1 and 2 only

(c). 2 and 3 only

(d). 1, 2 and 3

 

Explanation:

Hydrogels are water-absorbent polymer networks that can be used in a variety of applications, including:

Controlled drug delivery: Hydrogels can encapsulate drugs and release them gradually over time, which can help reduce the dose and dosing frequency and improve patient compliance.

Mobile air-conditioning systems: Hydrogels can be used as desiccants to control humidity.

Industrial lubricants: Hydrogels can improve the properties of industrial lubricants, such as reducing friction and wear, controlling viscosity, and improving thermal stability.

Hydrogels are biphasic materials that are a mixture of porous, permeable solids and at least 10% by weight or volume of interstitial fluid composed completely or mainly by water. Many hydrogels are synthetic, but some are derived from nature.

Therefore, the answer is (d). 1, 2 and 3

 

 

Q97. Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen?

(a). Hydrogen peroxide

(b). Hydronium

(c). Oxygen

(d). Water vapour

 

Explanation:

The answer is: (d). Water vapor

Fuel cell electric vehicles (FCEVs) powered by hydrogen produce only water vapor as an exhaust emission.

This makes them significantly cleaner than traditional gasoline or diesel vehicles.  

The other options are incorrect as they are not products of the hydrogen-oxygen reaction in a fuel cell.

 

Q98. Recently, the term pumped-storage hydropower is actually and appropriately discussed in the context of which one of the following?

(a). Irrigation of terraced crop fields

(b). Lift irrigation of cereal crops

(c). Long duration energy storage

(d). Rainwater harvesting system

 

Explanation:

●     Pumped-storage hydropower is a method of energy storage where water is pumped to a higher elevation reservoir during periods of low electricity demand, and then released through turbines to generate electricity during peak demand periods.

●     This process essentially stores energy in the form of potential energy of water and then converts it back to electrical energy when needed.

●     This makes it an ideal solution for long duration energy storage.

The other options are not directly related to the core function of pumped-storage hydropower

The answer is: (c). Long duration energy storage

 

Q99. Membrane Bioreactors are often discussed in the context of:

(a). Assisted reproductive technologies

(b). Drug delivery nanotechnologies

(c). Vaccine production technologies

(d). Wastewater treatment technologies

 

Explanation:

Membrane bioreactors (MBRs) are most often discussed in the context of wastewater treatment technologies:

MBRs combine biological treatment with membrane filtration to remove pollutants from wastewater. The membranes act as barriers, allowing clean water to pass through while retaining microorganisms and suspended solids. MBRs are widely used to treat both domestic and industrial wastewater. They can also improve effluent quality, sludge thickening, and a plant's footprint. MBRs are especially useful for handling high or variable organic loading, such as in industrial wastewater treatment.

History

MBR technology has been established for more than 30 years and has become a preferred wastewater treatment technology over the activated sludge process (ASP), which has been the conventional municipal wastewater technology for over a century.

Demand

The demand for MBRs is driven by increased awareness about water treatment and safe drinking water, as well as stringent regulatory enforcement towards the safe discharge of wastewater. The pharmaceuticals, food and beverages, automotive, and chemicals industries are among the main drivers of demand for this emerging technology

The answer is: (d). Wastewater treatment technologies

 

Q100. With reference to the Indian economy, Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations are the instruments of :

(a). Bond market

(b). Forex market

(c). Money market

(d). Stock market

 

Explanation:

Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations (CBLOs) are instruments of the money market in the Indian economy. CBLOs are short-term agreements between a borrower and a lender that allow the borrower to receive cash from the lender in exchange for collateral, typically government securities. CBLOs are used to manage liquidity.

The money market is a part of the financial market that deals in short-term assets, such as loans, securities, and other instruments with maturities of one year or less. Money market funds often invest in low-risk, highly liquid securities, like government securities, certificates of deposit, and commercial paper

The answer is: (c).

 

 

 

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